Re: Jesus had a wife:
The news is a weak fallacy: Ms King said the fragment, written in ancient Egyptian Coptic, is the first known scripture in which Jesus is reported to cite his wife.
Combining ‘scripture’ with ‘Jesus’ badly misleads.
The latter name’s use in ‘scripture’ is in the 1st century AD Greek. Egyptian Coptic is a different language, different country, two centuries later, and not New Testament scripture. So not news fit for purpose: merely equivocation trying to invent a non-existent connection.
Professor Arthur Gibson